PMP Sample Questions | PMBOK Guide 5th Edition

Instructions

These 100 PMP practice questions are based on PMBOK Guide, 5th Edition and are prepared by the PMP® certified project managers at MyPM.
There may be more than one right answer; however, select only one best answer for every question.
Want a visual reminder to come back to a question? Place a check mark in the box labelled “Mark for Review.” It’s located at the top right of every question.
When you are done, select the button at the bottom of the page. Your exam will be graded and your score will be displayed.
Incorrect answers will have a red X next to them while correct answers will have a green check mark.
If you are timing yourself, allow two hours.

Exam Topics

This exam includes questions regarding the following subjects: project time management, project cost management, project quality management, project human resources management, project communications management, project risk management, project procurement management, and project stakeholder management. For PMP sample questions that cover additional topics, see our other PMP practice exams

Begin Exam 3

Mark for Review

1. Lisa is reviewing the project schedule to determine whether a change, corrective action, or preventative action is necessary. She is using the ___________ as a reference and comparing it with actual schedule results.

A- risk log

B- schedule baseline

C- Gantt chart

D- project budget

Question 1 of 100

Mark for Review

2. Jean and Bob are reviewing schedule status and they find variance on the critical path. They know that variance on the critical path will have a direct impact on

A- the project end date.

B- the number of stakeholders.

C- both A and B

D- neither A nor B

Question 2 of 100

Mark for Review

3. Libby spots a small delay on an activity that is not on the critical path. Most likely, this delay

A- is attributable to low quality materials.

B- may have a major effect on the project end date

C- may have little effect on the overall project schedule.

D- is attributable to communication problems.

Question 3 of 100

Mark for Review

4. During network analysis, Tony adjusts ___________________ to bring project activities that are behind into alignment with the plan.

A- milestones

B- the project scope

C- risk assessments

D- leads and lags

Question 4 of 100

Mark for Review

5. Project Cost Management includes _________________________ so that the project can be completed within budget.

A- estimating

B- budgeting

C- controlling costs

D- all of the above

Question 5 of 100

Mark for Review

6. Project Cost Management should consider

A- whether fast tracking can be applied to the schedule.

B- the stakeholder requirements for managing costs.

C- whether the project team is storming.

D- none of the above

Question 6 of 100

Mark for Review

7. The Plan Cost Management process provides guidance and direction on how

A- the value of the project risks will be evaluated.

B- the project phases will be established.

C- the project costs will be managed throughout the project.

D- the project milestones will be determined.

Question 7 of 100

Mark for Review

8. The cost management plan is a component of the

A- scope management plan.

B- project management plan.

C- communications management plan.

D- risk management plan.

Question 8 of 100

Mark for Review

9. Martin is developing the cost management plan and he would like information on when specific project costs will be incurred. He should examine the

A- schedule baseline.

B- scope baseline.

C- risk register.

D- stakeholder register.

Question 9 of 100

Mark for Review

10. Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Plan Cost Management process?

A- Currency exchange rates for project costs that are sourced from three different countries.

B- Historical information and the lessons learned knowledge bases.

C- neither A nor B

D- both A and B

Question 10 of 100

Mark for Review

11. Which of the following can the cost management plan establish?

A- units of measure that are defined for each of the resources such as number of hours in a work day

B- level of precision such as the degree to which cost estimates will be rounded up or down

C- levels of accuracy like the acceptable range used to determine activity cost estimates (± 5%)

D- all of the above

Question 11 of 100

Mark for Review

12. Cost estimates should be

A- fixed for the life of the project.

B- should appear as a rough order of magnitude (ROM) in the range of -25% to +75%.

C- should appear as a rough order of magnitude (ROM) in the range of -10% to +10%.

D- reviewed and refined during the course of the project.

Question 12 of 100

Mark for Review

13. When estimating project costs, which of the following should be reviewed?

A- human resource management plan

B- scope baseline

C- risk register

D- all of the above

Question 13 of 100

Mark for Review

14. Analogous estimating uses

A- a rough order of magnitude in the range of ± 10%.

B- historical information and expert judgment.

C- the current market values.

D- none of the above

Question 14 of 100

Mark for Review

15. Recently, Mark completed the management of a construction project. The structure cost approximately $250 per square foot to build. Mark is estimating the cost of building a new structure that is very similar this one. As a cost estimate, he will use $250 times the number of proposed square feet. Mark is relying on

A- three-point estimating.

B- bottom-up estimating.

C- analogous estimating.

D- parametric estimating.

Question 15 of 100

Mark for Review

16. Contingency reserves are allocated for identified risks which are accepted and for which contingent or mitigating responses are developed. The contingent reserve may be

A- a percentage of the estimated cost.

B- a fixed number.

C- developed by using quantitative analysis methods.

D- all of the above

Question 16 of 100

Mark for Review

17. Cost of Quality (COQ) is

A- a cost that includes the costs to rework products that are non-compliant.

B- the amount paid to procure the highest quality project materials.

C- the labor costs associated procuring the project team.

D- a method for determining the costs incurred to ensure quality.

Question 17 of 100

Mark for Review

18. Supporting detail for activity cost estimates might include

A- documentation of how the estimate was developed.

B- documentation of all assumptions made.

C- documentation of any known constraints.

D- all of the above

Question 18 of 100

Mark for Review

19. The cost baseline

A- excludes management reserves.

B- should be updated frequently.

C- both A and B

D- neither A nor B

Question 19 of 100

Mark for Review

20. The project budget

A- includes the management reserve.

B- includes the contingency reserve.

C- both A and B

D- neither A nor B

Question 20 of 100

Mark for Review

21. A control account is

A- a measure of cost efficiency on a project.

B- a management control point where scope, budget, actual cost and schedule are integrated and compared to earned value for performance measurement.

C- the ratio of earned value (EV) to actual costs (AC).

D- includes the contingency reserve.

Question 21 of 100

Mark for Review

22. The benefit of the control costs process is that

A- it involves functional areas like the accounting department.

B- it doesn’t involve the project manager.

C- it provides a way to recognize variance from the plan.

D- it’s only performed once during the duration of the project.

Question 22 of 100

Mark for Review

23. Joel seeks an increase to the authorized budget. The increase can only be approved through the

A- Perform Integrated Change Control process.

B- Meeting of Stakeholders (MOS).

C- accounting department.

D- none of the above

Question 23 of 100

Mark for Review

24. Project cost control includes

A- ensuring all change requests are acted on in a timely manner.

B- managing the actual changes when and as they occur.

C- monitoring work performed against funds expended.

D- all of the above

Question 24 of 100

Mark for Review

25. For which industry can the principles of Earned Value Management (EVM) be applied?

A- manufacturing industry

B- software development industry

C- transportation industry

D- all of the above

Question 25 of 100

Mark for Review

26. Earned value management integrates the scope baseline with the cost baseline and the schedule baseline to form the _________baseline.

A- risk

B- resource

C- performance

D- control

Question 26 of 100

Mark for Review

27. The total planned value for the project is also know as

A- budget at completion (BAC).

B- earned value (EV).

C- actual value (AV)

D- actual cost (AC)

Question 27 of 100

Mark for Review

28. Simon is managing a simple project that involves painting the inside of a square room. On this project, only four walls will be painted. The project will last four days and one wall a day will be painted at the budgeted cost of $50 per wall. At the end of day 2, Simon reports the following status: 3 walls are complete and, so far, the total expenses are $120.

What is the planned value (PV)?

A- $150

B- $120

C- $100

D- $50

Question 28 of 100

Mark for Review

29. For Simon’s simple project in question #28, what is the earned value (EV)?

$150

$100

$50

$200

Question 29 of 100

Mark for Review

30. For Simon’s simple project in question #28, what is the actual cost (AC)?

A- $50

B- $100

C- $150

D- $120

Question 30 of 100

Mark for Review

31. For Simon’s simple project in question #28, the project is

A- ahead of schedule and over budget.

B- ahead of schedule and under budget.

C- behind schedule and under budget.

D- behind schedule and over budget.

Question 31 of 100

Mark for Review

32. On Paul’s project, the earned value (EV) is $1,115 and the actual cost (AC) is $1,100. What is the cost variance (CV)?

A- $2,215

B- 1.0136

C- -1%

D- $15

Question 32 of 100

Mark for Review

33. Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating the cost performance index (CPI)?

A- CPI=EV/PV

B- CPI=EV/AC

C- CPI=EV x AC

D- none of the above

Question 33 of 100

Mark for Review

34. Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating schedule variance?

A- SV=EV-PV

B- SV=EV+PV

C- SV=EV x PV

D- SV=EV÷PV

Question 34 of 100

Mark for Review

35. Cynthia needs to calculate the variance at completion (VAC). Which formula should she use?

A- VAC=EV-PV

B- VAC=BAC-EAC

C- VAC=BAC+EAC

D- VAC=EV+PV

Question 35 of 100

Mark for Review

36. Project Quality Management

A- applies to manufacturing projects only.

B- applies to all projects, regardless of the the nature of their deliverables.

C- applies to software development projects only.

D- applies to construction projects only.

Question 36 of 100

Mark for Review

37. Which of the following is not an example of a post-project cost of quality?

A- product returns

B- warranty claims

C-product inspections

D- recall campaigns

Question 37 of 100

Mark for Review

38. Which of the following is not a benefit of meeting quality requirements?

A- less rework

B- higher productivity

C- increased profitability

D- decreased stakeholder satisfaction

Question 38 of 100

Mark for Review

39. An example of an external failure cost includes

A- warranty work

B- testing

C- inspections

D- scrap

Question 39 of 100

Mark for Review

40. An example of an internal failure cost includes

A- testing

B- warranty work

C- lost business

D- scrap

Question 40 of 100

Mark for Review

41. The total cost of quality (COQ) includes the cost of conformance and the cost of nonconformance. Which of the following is not a cost of nonconformance?

A- scrap

B- lost business

C- warranty work

D- testing

Question 41 of 100

Mark for Review

42. Which of the following is not a basic quality tool?

A- cause-and-effect diagram

B- scatter diagrams

C- Pareto diagrams

D- organizational structure diagram

Question 42 of 100

Mark for Review

43. The new widget line just produced the first 500 widgets. Paul pulled a random 50 widgets for inspection. He is relying on a technique called

A- benchmarking.

B- design of experiments.

C- statistic sampling.

D- force field analysis.

Question 43 of 100

Mark for Review

44. The quality management plan is a component of the

A- communications management plan.

B- risk management plan.

C- cost management plan.

D- project management plan.

Question 44 of 100

Mark for Review

45. Which of the following is not an example of a quality metric?

A- on-time performance

B- communication type

C- cost control

D- defect frequency

Question 45 of 100

Mark for Review

46. Quality audits may be

A- scheduled.

B- random.

C- conducted by an external auditor.

D- all of the above.

Question 46 of 100

Mark for Review

47. Quality audits can confirm the implementation of

A- approved change requests.

B- corrective actions.

C- defect repairs.

D- all of the above.

Question 47 of 100

Mark for Review

48. The key benefit(s) of the control quality process include

A- identifying the causes of poor process or product quality and taking action to eliminate them.

B- validating that project deliverables and work meet the requirements necessary for final acceptance.

C- both A and B

D- neither A nor B

Question 48 of 100

Mark for Review

49. The seven basic quality tool (7QC Tools) used within the context of the PDCA Cycle are:

A- cause-and-effect-diagrams, flowcharts, checksheets, Pareto diagrams, histograms, control charts, and scatter diagrams.

B- cause-and-effect-diagrams, Gantt charts, checksheets, Pareto diagrams, histograms, control charts, and scatter diagrams.

C- cause-and-effect-diagrams, Gantt charts, checksheets, Pareto diagrams, inspection diagrams, control charts, and scatter diagrams.

D- cause-and-effect-diagrams, Gantt charts, checksheets, Pareto diagrams, histograms, inspection diagrams, and scatter diagrams.

Question 49 of 100

Mark for Review

50. A goal of the Control Quality process is to determine the correctness of deliverables. The results of performing the Control Quality process are

A- reduced costs.

B- increased production.

C- verified deliverables.

D- decreased sales.

Question 50 of 100

Mark for Review

51. Tom is performing a statistical audit on the widgets and discovers that approximately 33% of the widgets weigh more than they should. Which of the following is true?

A- The production manager should notify the project stakeholders.

B- The production manager should gather all the defective widgets and remake them.

C- The project manager should send all the defective widgets back to production.

D- A change request should be initiated in accordance with the Perform Integrated Change Control process.

Question 51 of 100

Mark for Review

52. The causes of variances and the reasoning behind the corrective action chosen should be

A- communicated immediately to all project stakeholders.

B- documented with other lessons learned.

C- both A and B

D- neither A nor B.

Question 52 of 100

Mark for Review

53. Project Human Resource Management includes the processes that

A- organize the project team.

B- manage the project team.

C- lead the project team.

D- all of the above

Question 53 of 100

Mark for Review

54. After kickoff, Ali took the project team to dinner so they had an opportunity to become better acquainted. Which process was Ali performing?

A- develop project team

B- acquire project team

C- manage project team

D- none of the above

Question 54 of 100

Mark for Review

55. Which of the following is not an input to developing the human resource management plan?

A- project management plan

B- activity resource requirements

C- project status report

D- enterprise environmental factors

Question 55 of 100

Mark for Review

56. The human resource management plan describes

A- roles and responsibilities.

B- reporting relationships.

C- training needs.

D- all of the above

Question 56 of 100

Mark for Review

57. There are numerous ways to document team member roles and responsibilities. A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) is one way. A RAM is a grid that shows the project resources assigned to each work package. One example of a RAM is a

A- PACI chart.

B- WBS chart.

C- RACI chart.

D- DMS chart.

Question 57 of 100

Mark for Review

58. To acquire the project team, the project manager may need to

A- negotiate and influence others.

B- submit a written demand to the HR department.

C- bribe the project sponsor.

D- none of the above

Question 58 of 100

Mark for Review

59.Failure to acquire the necessary human resources for a project could affect

A- the project schedule.

B- the project budget.

C- quality.

D- all of the above

Question 59 of 100

Mark for Review

60. Which of the following is not a benefit of the virtual team model?

A- It provides for the inclusion of people with mobility limitations or disabilities.

B-It permits inclusion of talent that exists outside the geographic area.

C- It increases the need for communication planning.

D- It permits a project to move forward that would have been ignored due to travel expenses.

Question 60 of 100

Mark for Review

61. Stan needs to know whether half of the project team members are available to work the day before a major holiday. He should consult the

A- statement of work.

B- resource calendar.

C- RACI diagram.

D- cost baseline.

Question 61 of 100

Mark for Review

62. There are five states of development that teams go through. Which of the following is not one of them?

A- forming

B- storming

C- norming

D- conforming

Question 62 of 100

Mark for Review

63. During the storming phase of team development, the team

A- meets and learns about the project and their formal roles and responsibilities. Team members tend to be independent and not as open in this phase.

B- begin to work together and adjust their work habits and behaviors to support the team. The team learns to trust each other.

C- begins to address the project work, technical decisions, and the project management approach. If team members are not collaborative or open to differing perspectives, the environment can become counterproductive.

D- none of the above.

Question 63 of 100

Mark for Review

64. Which of the following is not true about colocation?

A- It’s also referred to as “tight matrix.”

B- It can be temporary.

C- It reduces conflict among team members.

D- It can enhance the teams’ ability to perform.

Question 64 of 100

Mark for Review

65. Concerning recognition and rewards programs, it’s important to understand that

A- a particular reward given to any individual will be effective only if it satisfies a need which is valued by that individual.

B- a particular reward given to any individual will be effective only if it was difficult to earn.

C- a particular reward given to any individual will be effective only if others also desire the particular reward.

D- all rewards given will be effective if the rewards are expensive.

Question 65 of 100

Mark for Review

66. Soft skills are valuable assets when developing the project team. They include which of the following proficiencies?

A- verbal and nonverbal communication skills

B- emotional intelligence and negotiation

C- conflict resolution and team building

D- all of the above

Question 66 of 100

Mark for Review

67. While managing the project team, issues may arise. Where should the project manager document the person responsible for resolving specific issues by a target date?

A- project status report

B- requirements traceability matrix

C- scatter diagram

D- issue log

Question 67 of 100

Mark for Review

68. Which of the following is not an objective for conducting performance appraisals?

A- clarifying roles and responsibilities

B- reducing conflict

C- providing constructive feedback to team members

D- discovering unknown or unresolved issues

Question 68 of 100

Mark for Review

69. There are five general techniques for resolving conflict. Which of the following is not one of them?

A- withdraw/avoid

B- agitate/incite

C- smooth/accommodate

D- force/direct

Question 69 of 100

Mark for Review

70. Staffing changes can affect the rest of the project management plan. For example, staffing issues can extend the project schedule. When staffing issues disrupt the project team from adhering to the project management plan, a _________ can be processed through the Perform Integrated Change Control process.

A- change request

B- new resource management plan

C- revised resource calendar

D- risk register

Question 70 of 100

Mark for Review

71. Inadequate communications planning may lead to which of the following problems?

A- delay in message delivery

B- communicating information to the wrong audience

C- providing insufficient communication to stakeholders

D- all of the above

Question 71 of 100

Mark for Review

72. When planning communications, a project manager should

A- consider who will need project information.

B- consider where information should be stored.

C- both A and B

D- ensure that both pull and push methods of communication are available.

Question 72 of 100

Mark for Review

73. Tim is managing a project where the team is spread out across three countries. In planning project communications, he should take which of the following considerations into account?

A- the differences in converting currency

B- cross cultural differences

C- time zone differences

D- B and C only

Question 73 of 100

Mark for Review

74. Sean is planning communication with the project stakeholders. Where should he look to find their contact information and preferred methods of communication?

A- project charter

B- risk register

C-project status report

D- stakeholder register

Question 74 of 100

Mark for Review

75. As to project communications, resources should be expended only on

A-electronic forms of communication.

B-methods of written communication.

C- communicating information that contributes to the success of the project or where a lack of communication can lead to failure.

D- both A and B

Question 75 of 100

Mark for Review

76. Bud is examining the complexity of his project’s communications by calculating the total number of potential communication channels or paths. Which formula should he use to make this calculation?

A- n(10-1)/2 (n represents the number of stakeholders)

B- n(n-1)/4 (n represents the number of stakeholders)

C- n(n-1)/2 (n represents the number of stakeholders)

D- n(n-2)/2 (n represents the number of stakeholders)

Question 76 of 100

Mark for Review

77. ____________ is an example of pull communication.

A- A project manager sending status reports to fifteen stakeholders

B- Stakeholders logging into a web application to view the project status

C- Stakeholders sending questions to a project manager

D- none of the above

Question 77 of 100

Mark for Review

78. Typically, the ability of a stakeholder to influence a project is highest during

A- the initial stages of the project.

B- the final phase of project execution.

C- final walk-through and acceptance.

D- both A nor C

Question 78 of 100

Mark for Review

79. Which of the following is not a part of the communications management plan?

A- stakeholder communication requirements

B- information to be communicated

C- escalation process identifying time frames and management chain for escalation of issues that cannot be resolved at a lower staff level

D- a list of persons to whom risk responses should be assigned

Question 79 of 100

Mark for Review

80. Performance reporting involves the periodic collection and analysis of ______________ versus _____________ data to understand and communicate the project progress and performance as well as to forecast the project results.

A- desired, factual

B- cost, savings

C-live, test

D- baseline, actual

Question 80 of 100

Mark for Review

81. The objectives of project risk management are to

A- avoid all project risks.

B- increase the likelihood and impact of of positive events and decrease the likelihood and impact of negative events

C- identify all project risks then shift the identified risks to business competitors.

D- none of the above

Question 81 of 100

Mark for Review

82. Stephen is numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on the overall project objectives. He is performing

A- qualitative risk analysis

B- risk identification

C- quantitative risk analysis

D- risk response analysis

Question 82 of 100

Mark for Review

83. Sharon has a long list of project risks that have been identified. She prioritized them by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact. Sharon performed

A- qualitative risk analysis

B- quantitative risk analysis

C- risk response analysis

D- none of the above

Question 83 of 100

Mark for Review

84. Known risks that cannot be managed proactively should be assigned a contingency reserve. Unknown risks cannot be managed proactively and therefore may be assigned

A- a management reserve.

B- no reserve.

C- twice the amount of reserve.

D- none of the above

Question 84 of 100

Mark for Review

85. The ACME company is aggressive in the marketplace. They are willing to take on an enormous degree of uncertainty in anticipation of a reward. The ACME company has a large

A- funding source

B- insurance policy

C- both A and B

D- risk appetite

Question 85 of 100

Mark for Review

86. Positive and negative risks are commonly referred to as

A-gains and losses.

B- benefits and tolerances.

C- opportunities and threats.

D- fantasy and reality.

Question 86 of 100

Mark for Review

87. Which of the following is an input to creating a risk register?

A- cost management plan

B- schedule management plan

C- scope baseline

D- all of the above

Question 87 of 100

Mark for Review

88. As to project risks, a probability and impact matrix is

A- a bar chart that illustrates the probability of a risk impact.

B- a grid for mapping the probability of each risk occurrence and its impact on project objectives if that risk occurs.

C- a scatter diagram that presents dots clustered around the risk with the highest probability of occurrence.

D- none of the above

Question 88 of 100

Mark for Review

89. Stakeholder engagement is critical to project success. A stakeholder who is aware of the project and potential impact and actively engaged in ensuring the project is a success should be classified as having a ________________ level of engagement.

A- resistant

B- supportive

C- neutral

D- leading

Question 89 of 100

Mark for Review

90. SWOT analysis begins with the identification of strengths and weaknesses of an organization. It then identifies ___________ that arise from organizational strengths and __________ that arise form organizational weaknesses.

A- income, losses

B- opportunities, threats

C- operational benefits, total losses

D- none of the above

Question 90 of 100

Mark for Review

91. The primary output from identifying risks is

A- the risk analysis.

B- the planned risk response.

C- the initial entry into the risk register.

D- all of the above

Question 91 of 100

Mark for Review

92. _______________ helps to determine which risks have the most potential impact on the project.

A- Cost analysis

B- Sensitivity analysis

C- Schedule analysis

D- Resource analysis

Question 92 of 100

Mark for Review

93. Simulations are typically performed using the _____________ technique.

A- Monte Carlo

B- Round table

C- Impostering

D- none of the above

Question 93 of 100

Mark for Review

94. The four strategies for dealing with negative risks or threats are:

A- avoid, shift, ignore, and mitigate.

B- avoid, exploit, shift, and transfer.

C- avoid, transfer, mitigate, and accept.

D- avoid, exploit, mitigate, and accept

Question 94 of 100

Mark for Review

95. The four strategies for dealing with risks with potentially positive impacts on project objectives are:

A- exploit, enhance, share, and accept

B- exploit, shift, share, and accept

C- exploit, enhance, transfer, and shift

D- exploit, transfer, share, and accept

Question 95 of 100

Mark for Review

96. A fixed price contract involves setting ________________ for a defined product, service, or result to be provided.

A- a time and materials agreement

B- an adjustable amount

C- a total fixed price

D- a timer

Question 96 of 100

Mark for Review

97. A time and materials contract

A- is a common contract type.

B- compensates the person performing under the contract for his or her time and actual costs of material used in performing the contract work.

C- may contain a “not-to-exceed” value.

D- all of the above

Question 97 of 100

Mark for Review

98. A make-or-buy analysis

A- is used to determine whether particular work should be accomplished by the project team or purchased from an outside source.

B- may be influenced by budget constraints.

C- both A and B

D- neither A nor B

Question 98 of 100

Mark for Review

99. Allen is managing a large software development project for his company. Most of the project work will be performed by the in-house development team. He will procure the services of an outside software development company for one small but rather important item pertaining to security. It’s important that Allen provides the outside team with a clear, complete, and concise understanding of the work to be performed. Allen should provide the outside team with

A- a risk diagram.

B- a project charter.

C- a procurement statement of work.

D- none of the above

Question 99 of 100

Mark for Review

100. Sarah must procure 100 widgets for the project she is managing. Fortunately, several companies manufacture and supply them. The procurement document that would best serve Sarah is a

A- an RFQ

B- an RFI

C- an RFP

D- a PDQ

Question 100 of 100

Cookie	Duration	Description
cookielawinfo-checkbox-advertisement	1 year	Set by the GDPR Cookie Consent plugin, this cookie is used to record the user consent for the cookies in the "Advertisement" category .
cookielawinfo-checkbox-analytics	11 months	This cookie is set by GDPR Cookie Consent plugin. The cookie is used to store the user consent for the cookies in the category "Analytics".
cookielawinfo-checkbox-functional	11 months	The cookie is set by GDPR cookie consent to record the user consent for the cookies in the category "Functional".
cookielawinfo-checkbox-necessary	11 months	This cookie is set by GDPR Cookie Consent plugin. The cookies is used to store the user consent for the cookies in the category "Necessary".
cookielawinfo-checkbox-others	11 months	This cookie is set by GDPR Cookie Consent plugin. The cookie is used to store the user consent for the cookies in the category "Other.
cookielawinfo-checkbox-performance	11 months	This cookie is set by GDPR Cookie Consent plugin. The cookie is used to store the user consent for the cookies in the category "Performance".
PHPSESSID	session	This cookie is native to PHP applications. The cookie is used to store and identify a users' unique session ID for the purpose of managing user session on the website. The cookie is a session cookies and is deleted when all the browser windows are closed.
viewed_cookie_policy	11 months	The cookie is set by the GDPR Cookie Consent plugin and is used to store whether or not user has consented to the use of cookies. It does not store any personal data.

Cookie	Duration	Description
_ga	2 years	The _ga cookie, installed by Google Analytics, calculates visitor, session and campaign data and also keeps track of site usage for the site's analytics report. The cookie stores information anonymously and assigns a randomly generated number to recognize unique visitors.
_gat_gtag_UA_33667089_1	1 minute	Set by Google to distinguish users.
_gid	1 day	Installed by Google Analytics, _gid cookie stores information on how visitors use a website, while also creating an analytics report of the website's performance. Some of the data that are collected include the number of visitors, their source, and the pages they visit anonymously.

PMP Sample Questions | Exam 4

Instructions

Exam Topics

Begin Exam 3

Your Proposal Management Company

Contact Us