PMP Practice Exam 2016

The PMP Practice Exam 2016 is here! It’s free and no logins are required. It’s a valuable resource for those planning to pass the exam on the first attempt.

PMP Practice Exam 2016

This 200-question, PMP® practice exam was developed in February, 2016 by a PMP® certified professional. It was built by referencing two resources: 1) June 2015 PMP® Examination Content Outline by Project Management Institute (PMI) and 2) PMI’s Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide®) 5th Edition.

Two Tips for the Actual Exam

1. What to Study

If you’re planning to sit for the 2016 PMP exam, definitely include PMBOK Guide, 5th Edition as a study reference. You’ll find it’s invaluable. Those taking the exam should also understand the tasks set forth in the June 2015 PMP Examination Content Outline. In January 2016, PMI® updated the exam to reflect the changes set forth in the new Exam Content Outline.

It’s important to remember that the PMP® examination is built by referencing additional resources, too. PMI relates that candidates would be well-advised to read other current titles on project management.

2. What to Join

Do yourself a favor, become a member of the Project Management Institute before you take the exam. Not only will you receive a discount on the price of the exam, but you’ll also receive a free copy of the current PMBOK Guide. In addition, you’ll receive tons of other benefits. PMI does a excellent job of providing value to its members.

Instructions for this Practice Exam

Below you’ll find a 200 question, 2016 PMP practice exam. To start the exam, simply read the first question and select the one best answer. There may be more than one right answer; however, select the best answer. Here’s a few other useful tips:

Find a quiet space and turn your phone off.
If you are timing yourself, allow four hours to take this practice exam.
If you intend to use a “brain dump,” for the real exam, start this practice exam by performing your brain dump. Relax, take your time and dump all of the information you have rehearsed.
If you’re not sure of your answer, select the “Mark for Review” box found at the top right of each question. This will mark the question for later review.
Remember to select one answer for every question. There are no points lost for answering incorrectly, so answer them all.
If you need to pause the exam and come back at a later time, select the “save” button at the bottom. (This feature works only on desktop.)
When you are done taking the exam, select the button to submit your answers. Your exam will be graded and your score will be displayed.
Review the results. Incorrect answers will have a red “X” next to them while correct answers will have a green check mark. The answer you selected will appear in blue.
Need 200 more practice questions? Visit our PMP Exam Questions page. The questions are free.

Start the 2016 Practice Exam

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1. Zack is the newly assigned project manager for the Hilldale project. Although the Hilldale project is complex, last year his organization performed two that were very similar to it. Before planning the Hilldale project, Zack should review:

A- lessons learned from the similar projects

B- organizational process outputs

C- all status reports

D- the risk management plan

Question 1 of 200

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2. The project charter is finally approved and the project manager is ready to begin project planning. Where might he or she find key deliverables?

A- the stakeholder management plan

B- the project charter

C- the communication management plan

D- the risk management plan

Question 2 of 200

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3. For which reason is a project manager most likely to perform stakeholder analysis?

A- to set the appropriate project budget

B- to ensure the project work complies with federal regulations

C- to align stakeholder expectations

D- to delay the project start date

Question 3 of 200

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4. The project manager is ready to prepare the initial stakeholder register. She begins with a review of the project charter. There she finds the names of several project stakeholders. To identify additional stakeholders, she should

A- interview the identified stakeholders

B- post an advertisement to identify the negative stakeholders

C- review the human resources plan

D- develop a fishbone diagram

Question 4 of 200

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5. The project sponsor asks for your assistance in developing a project charter. Specifically, he asks that you take the lead in identifying high-level risks. Which of the following is appropriate for high-level risk identification?

A- analyze the assumptions made while developing the project charter

B- review the lessons learned from similar projects

C- interview the identified stakeholders

D- all of the above

Question 5 of 200

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6. You have been asked to develop a project charter template for your organization. Which of the following should not be included in the project charter template?

A- a section for identifying know project stakeholders

B- a section to provide the estimated project timeline

C- a section to list project assumptions

D- a section for capturing the resource breakdown structure

Question 6 of 200

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7. You’ve worked with several in your organization to develop the project charter and it is now complete. From whom should you obtain final project charter approval?

A- the program manager

B- the project team

C- the project sponsor

D- the senior operations manager

Question 7 of 200

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8. You are the newly assigned project manager for the James Madison construction project. To what document should you look for authority to manage the project?

B- the resource procurement documents

A- the project charter

C- the request for proposal (RFP)

D- all of the above

Question 8 of 200

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9. You have been asked to help determine which projects should be initiated by your organization. The best place to begin is to ensure all selected projects

A- align with the organizational strategy

B- can be completed in less than one year

C- do not expose the organization to risk

D- align with organizational resources

Question 9 of 200

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10. During initial project assessment and planning, you identified a gap in the project charter. Had a key piece of information been captured, you could have saved considerable time in project planning. What should be your next course of action?

A- record the lesson learned

B- work overtime to make up for the lost time

C- notify the HR manager

D- perform less project planning to make up for the lost time

Question 10 of 200

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11. You are preparing the business case to justify the proposed project. The business case should include

A- the business need

B- a cost-benefit analysis

C- none of the above

D- both A and B are correct

Question 11 of 200

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12. Once the project charter is approved by the sponsor, the project manager informs the stakeholders. She does this to

A- notify the stakeholders that their approval is requested

B- ensure the project finishes on time and within budget

C- ensure a common understanding of the key deliverables, milestones and their roles and responsibilities

D- shift project risk

Question 12 of 200

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13. In review of the project charter, you’ll likely find:

A- the project purpose or justification, measurable project objectives, and the assigned project manager

B- high-level requirements, assumptions, and constraints

C- summary milestone schedule, summary budget, and stakeholder list

D- all of the above

Question 13 of 200

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14. You are called upon to help develop the project charter. Which organizational process assets should you reference?

A- lessons learned

B- the project charter template used by your organization

C- the organizational processes and policies for developing a project charter

D- all of the above

Question 14 of 200

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15. Mark is developing the project charter for an overseas manufacturing project. Which enterprise environmental factor might influence the process?

A- applicable worker protection standards

B- high-level risk assessment

C- project start date

D- all of the above

Question 15 of 200

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16. A member of the executive management team asked whether the project is worth the required investment. One way for her to find the answer is to review the

A- scope statement

B- business case

C- estimated activity durations

D- WBS

Question 16 of 200

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17. The project sponsor is reviewing the business case. In it he finds

A- the business need and the cost-benefit analysis

B- the cost-benefit analysis and the work breakdown structure

C- the business need and the work breakdown structure

D- the work breakdown structure and the assigned project manager

Question 17 of 200

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18. You’ve been asked to prepare the project statement of work (SOW). In it, you should provide

A- the estimated costs associated with performing the project

B- a narrative description of the products, services, or results to be delivered by a project

C- A and B are correct

D- none of the above

Question 18 of 200

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19. When choosing which projects to perform, what organizational resource should you reference?

A- the organization’s profit and loss statement

B- the organization’s employee handbook

C- the organization’s strategic plan

D- the organization’s human resource calendar

Question 19 of 200

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20. You review the project charter and find the following listed as project assumptions. Which one is not a project assumption?

A- project work will be performed from 8:00 AM – 5:00 PM, EST

B- the zoning permit will be granted

C- a full-time engineering resource will be assigned to the project

D- the project must finish by June 15 because the subsequent project must start on June 16

Question 20 of 200

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21. The new project manager asks you when he should capture lessons learned. You explain that lessons learned should be captured

A- only during project planning

B- only during project execution

C- throughout the entire project life cycle

D- only at the conclusion of a project

Question 21 of 200

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22. A new project manager began working for Acme, Inc. Unlike her last work place, she finds she has very high authority to manage projects. She is in a ____________ organization.

A- projectized

B- functional

C- weak matrix

D- balanced matrix

Question 22 of 200

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23. You’re the project manager for the new software development project. Your role includes

A- leading the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives

B- leading the functional managers towards reaching the strategic objectives

C- leading the operations team in meeting labor ratio requirements

D- all of the above

Question 23 of 200

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24. Your organization is searching for an additional project manager. During the interview, candidates are told the organizational structure is projectized. Those being interviewed can conclude the project manager’s authority is

A- little or none

B- low

C- low to moderate

D- high to almost total

Question 24 of 200

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25. The new project managers asks you when stakeholder identification should be performed. You explain that

A- stakeholder identification should be completed prior to constructing the project charter

B- stakeholder identification should be performed at the beginning of each project phase

C- stakeholder identification is a continuous process that can be performed throughout the project life cycle

D- where a project begins pursuant to a contract, stakeholder identification is not necessary

Question 25 of 200

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26. You are working with others to develop the project charter. Which of the following will not be used as an input?

A- project statement of work

B- business case

C- risk management plan

D- enterprise environmental factors

Question 26 of 200

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27. The project manager is developing a detailed list of project deliverables. Which item is he or she least likely to reference?

A- list of project requirements

B- the project charter

C- lessons learned

D- duration estimates

Question 27 of 200

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28. The charter is approved and you began project planning. Which subsidiary plans will you most likely include in the project management plan?

A- scope management plan, schedule management plan, communications management plan, cost management plan, human resources management plan, procurement management plan, quality management plan, risk management plan, stakeholder management plan

B- product management plan, schedule management plan, communications management plan, cost management plan, human resources management plan, purchasing management plan, quality management plan, risk management plan, stakeholder management plan

C- scope management plan, schedule management plan, public resources management plan, cost management plan, human resources management plan, procurement management plan, quality management plan, risk management plan, environmental management plan

D- business management plan, schedule management plan, communications management plan, cost management plan, human resources management plan, procurement management plan, quality management plan, risk management plan, loss management plan

Question 28 of 200

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29. You are planning the management of project scope and it is time to develop the requirements documentation. Which tool and/or technique can be used to gather project requirements?

A- interviews and focus groups

B- observations and facilitated workshops

C- document analysis and benchmarking

D- all of the above

Question 29 of 200

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30. It’s your job to gather the project requirements for a project that concerns the development of a public recreation area. You bring together some prequalified stakeholders and subject matter experts to learn about their expectations and attitudes about the new development area. During the meeting, a trained moderator guides the group through an interactive discussion. The requirements gathering technique you are using is referred to as

A- a focus group

B- document analysis

C- benchmarking

D- none of the above

Question 30 of 200

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31. For the new public transit project, a large number of ideas were captured. What would be the best tool or technique for classifying, reviewing, and analyzing the ideas?

A- brainstorming

B- affinity diagram

C- questionnaires

D- polling

Question 31 of 200

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32. During project planning, the project manager defined the roles and responsibilities for each member of the project team. Where is the project manager most likely to record this information?

A- human resource management plan

B- scope management plan

C- procurement statement of work

D- stakeholder management plan

Question 32 of 200

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33. During development of the communications management plan, it is important to account for communication with the project stakeholders. The best practice is to

A- plan an online repository for the project documentation so the stakeholders can view information when they want it

B- call the stakeholders each time there’s a change on the project

C- determine the stakeholder requirements for communications, then develop a plan for managing the flow of project information

D- avoid verbal communication because nothing will be in writing

Question 33 of 200

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34. It’s time to develop the procurement management plan. Which of the following is not an input?

A- WBS

B- project schedule

C- activity resource requirements

D- project status report

Question 34 of 200

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35. The sponsor is eager for the project to be completed. He asks your thoughts on changing some of the quality requirements to expedite time. Before responding, you pause to remember the benefits of meeting the quality requirements. Which of the following is not a benefit of meeting quality requirements?

A- less rework

B- lower costs

C- increased stakeholder satisfaction

D- increased risk

Question 35 of 200

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36. The customer requested a change to the project. A change request form is completed and it’s submitted to the change control board. For which reason may the change control board approve a change request?

A- the requested change is a corrective action

B- the requested change is a preventative action

C- the requested change is a defect repair

D- all of the above

Question 36 of 200

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37. You are the project manager for a software development project. This project seeks to convert an older software application to new technology. You find a thorough user guide that was written for the older application and members of your project team are reviewing it to identify existing functionality. They’re gathering a list of requirements for the new conversion project. Which requirements gathering technique is being used?

A- observation

B- document analysis

C- benchmarking

D- a group creativity technique

Question 37 of 200

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38. You are developing the risk management plan. Initial risk identification and analysis is complete. Now you are developing options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives. You are

A- performing Monte Carlo planning

B- controlling risks

C- planning risk responses

D- none of the above

Question 38 of 200

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39. You have finished preparing the project management plan. What should happen prior to the start of project execution?

A- present the project management plan to the relevant stakeholders to obtain approval

B- procure all contract resources

C- hold the project kickoff meeting

D- develop the agenda for the project kickoff meeting

Question 39 of 200

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40. The project manager is ready to conduct the project kickoff meeting. Who is he or she likely to invite?

A- members of the project team

B- the project sponsor

C- relevant stakeholders

D- all of the above

Question 40 of 200

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41. As the project manager, you hold the kickoff meeting. Which of the following is not a purpose of the kickoff meeting?

A- engage stakeholders

B- perform variance analysis

C- gain commitment

D- discuss next steps

Question 41 of 200

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42. You performed stakeholder identification. Now you must analyze stakeholder needs, interests, and potential impacts on the project. You begin by developing a power/interest grid. Which of the following is not true about the power/interest grid?

A- it groups the stakeholders based on their level of authority

B- it groups the stakeholders based on their level of interest or concern

C- it helps the project manager understand which stakeholders should be managed closely

D- it helps the project manager track the contact information for each stakeholder

Question 42 of 200

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43. As a project manager, you understand that stakeholder engagement is essential for project success. Therefore, in the stakeholder management plan, you compare the current engagement level of all stakeholders to the planned engagement levels that are required for project success. Which of the following is not a classification of a stakeholder’s engagement level?

A- Unaware

B- Resistant

C- Disarmed

D- Leading

Question 43 of 200

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44. The project manager is estimating the cost of procuring a specialist on a part-time basis. Because she doesn’t know for sure whether the desired resource will be available when the project begins, she has some uncertainty in developing the cost estimate. To account for the uncertainty, she calculates an optimistic cost estimate, a pessimistic cost estimate, and a most likely cost estimate. Next, she selects the average of these estimates. The technique she used to develop the estimate is referred to as a

B- bottom-up estimate

C- analogous estimate

D- parametric estimate

A- none of the above

Question 44 of 200

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45. As the project manager, it’s your responsibility to develop the project budget. Inputs to the project budget do not include the

A- cost management plan

B- activity cost estimates

C- basis of estimates

D- stakeholder register

Question 45 of 200

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46. The project manager completed development of the schedule model and it has been approved. From here forward, the schedule model can be changed only through formal change control procedures. It will now be used as a basis for comparison to actual results. The project schedule is

A- baselined

B- set in stone

B- compressed

D- diagrammed

Question 46 of 200

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47. Yesterday the original project manager was fired and you were assigned as the new project manager. As the new project manager, you received multiple invoices from Connie Contractor. You’re not sure who she is and what she does. The subsidiary management plan most likely to contain the information you need is the

A- scope management plan

B- quality management plan

C- procurement management plan

D- risk management plan

Question 47 of 200

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48. Your best friend is managing a project that involves development of an enterprise software application. She explains that the project team consists of elite software development professionals that are working at capacity. She explains also that the project is slightly behind schedule.

As part of the project, new servers must be installed and configured. Although there are professionals on the project team who can handle the work, your friend is concerned about the project schedule. She wants to hire a contractor for the server installation work, but she’s not certain this is the best decision. How should she proceed?

A- perform a make-or-buy analysis

B- review the risk register

C- review the quality requirements

D- none of the above

Question 48 of 200

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49. Mark needs to test a batch of 10,000 newly manufactured widgets to ensure they meet the quality requirements. Since the process used to manufacture the 10,000 widgets is the same and because 10,000 are too many to test, Mark decides to test 500. Mark is relying on a quality control technique known as

A- statistical sampling

B- benchmarking

C- design of experiments

D- surveying

Question 49 of 200

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50. A member of the project team notifies you of a quality problem. She relates that last week there was a 28% defect rate that caused the customer to reject a delivery. She explains the rejection is causing rework and the production schedule may likely slip.

You asked the project team lead to meet with the project team and diagnose the recent increase in defects. What basic quality tool might the team lead use to guide the project team through a diagnosis?

A- a RACI chart

B- a tornado diagram

C- an Ishikawa diagram

D- an influence diagram

Question 50 of 200

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51. The project manager is developing the scope management plan. To assist her in planning the project work and in estimating time, she is subdividing the project deliverables and the project work into smaller, more manageable components. She is creating a

A- work breakdown structure (WBS)

B- decomposition matrix

C- statement of work (SOW)

D- none of the above

Question 51 of 200

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52. A member of the project team asks you what work packages are. You explain that

A- work packages represent the lowest level of the WBS for which cost and duration can be estimate and managed

B- the level of detail for work packages will vary with the size and complexity of the project

C- each work page should be associated with only one control account

D- all of the above are correct

Question 52 of 200

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53. You’ve been assigned as project manager for a failing project. Immediately, you review the project documentation to understand the scope of the project. You see the scope of work diagramed in the WBS and now you would like to find detailed deliverable, activity, and scheduling information for each WBS component. Which project document should contain this information?

A- statement of work (SOW)

B- WBS Dictionary

C- change management plan

D- context diagrams

Question 53 of 200

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54. You’ve developed documentation of all known project requirements and deliverables. Which tool will you use to break the requirements down into smaller work packages?

A- dissection

B- inspection

C- decomposition

D- none of the above

Question 54 of 200

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55. You are working with a group that spent the morning brainstorming several impressive new ideas. In the afternoon, te group will vote to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization. Which group creativity technique is being used?

A- nominal group technique

B- affinity diagramming

C- multi-criteria decision analysis

D- mind mapping

Question 55 of 200

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56. For the public housing renovation project, you need to quickly ascertain what additions, renovations, or restorations the 200 tenants would find most valuable. You should

A- issue a survey or questionnaire

B- observe each tenant in his or her daily activities

C- build a prototype of each idea for the tenants to select from

D- choose what you think would be most valued

Question 56 of 200

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57. As the project manager, you ensure each requirement is delivered. You begin by constructing a table that lists all project requirements. Next, you link each requirement from its origin to the deliverable that satisfies it. The project document you created is a

A- scope statement

B- activity list

C- requirements traceability matrix

D- milestone list

Question 57 of 200

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58. You’re developing the project scope statement. Which elements should not be included?

A- project scope description and the acceptance criteria

B- project deliverables and the exclusions from project scope

C- project constraints and the project assumptions

D- all of the above should be included as elements of the project scope statement

Question 58 of 200

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59. The project sponsor asks you to forward your documentation of the project scope baseline. You should forward

A- the approved version of the scope statement

B- the work breakdown structure (WBS)

C- the WBS dictionary

D- all of the above

Question 59 of 200

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60. The new project will involve acquiring widgets from an outside organization. What subsidiary plan will include the processes necessary to acquire the widgets?

A- procurement management plan

B- scope management plan

C- quality management plan

D- risk management plan

Question 60 of 200

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61. You have developed a risk register and now you must prioritize the risks for further analysis or action. For each risk you assess the probability of occurrence and the impact. You’re attempting to reduce the level of uncertainty and turn focus on the high-priority risks. You are performing

A- quantitative risk analysis

B- qualitative risk analysis

C- substantive risk analysis

D- none of the above

Question 61 of 200

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62. On the Zimbo project, not all requirements are known and the ones that are gathered may change as more information is presented to the client. To account for this, the project manager uses an iterative planning technique. The work that will be accomplished in the near future is planned in detail. The work that will be accomplished in the future is planned at a higher level. What planning technique is the project manager using?

A- rolling wave planning

B- inference planning

C- static planning

D- variance planning

Question 62 of 200

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63. The project manager is identifying and documenting project roles, the required skills, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. He is planning

A- issue management

B- risk management

C- human resource management

D- procurements management

Question 63 of 200

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64. The project manager finished estimating costs. She is now developing the supporting documentation that outlines the details used in establishing the cost estimates. She is including things like assumptions, constraints, her confidence levels, and levels of detail. The project manager is preparing the

A- basis of estimates

B- benchmarking guide

C- cost baseline

D- estimates baseline

Question 64 of 200

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65. The new project has 155 activities. Tom is tasked with developing the project schedule. Before starting, he estimates the amount of time each activity will take. Tom is

A- decomposing the project activities

B- developing the activity list

C- developing the bottom up estimate

D- estimating activity durations

Question 65 of 200

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66. The new project manager is estimating project activity durations. While estimating, she is making some basic assumptions. Which statement about assumptions is correct?

A- all assumptions made in developing the activity durations should be documented

B- assumptions regarding procurements and cost estimating are the only assumptions that should be captured

C- assumptions shouldn’t be captured or documented until project execution begins

D- once project execution begins, project assumptions are irrelevant

Question 66 of 200

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67. Duration estimates do not include

A- lags

B- a range of possible results

C- figures arrived at by a three-point estimate

D- all of the above

Question 67 of 200

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68. The project manager knows each of the project activities and now she must estimate the activity resources. To do this, she must

A- determine the availability of the human resources

B- calculate the number of hours required

C- identify the quantities of material and equipment needed to perform the schedule activities

D- all of the above

Question 68 of 200

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69. Stan had difficulty estimating cost for an activity because it’s one his organization has never performed. He discovered that last year his organization performed a similar activity and the actual cost was $12,300. Since the activities are similar, Stan used the $12,300 as the cost estimate for the new project. What estimating technique did Stan use?

A- analogous estimating

B- three-point estimating

C- bottom up estimating

D- none of the above

Question 69 of 200

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70. The new project must produce a widget that can support 1,600 lbs of weight. The widget must weigh under 4 lbs and conform to specified dimensions and color. The project manager documents these requirements and plans the activities designed to meet the requirements. He plans inspection points along the production process and he plans what happens in the event the widget does not satisfy the requirements. The project manager is planning

A- quality management

B- scope management

C- time management

D- cost management

Question 70 of 200

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71. Susan is planning project schedule. She sequenced and estimated all project activities and now she’s reviewing the longest path through the project. She’s doing this to calculate the shortest possible duration of the project. Susan is reviewing the

A- critical path

B- essential path

C- critical chain

D- critical duration

Question 71 of 200

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72. Mark finished planning the project schedule and submitted it to the project sponsor for approval. The project sponsor asked Mark to shorten the schedule by three business days. To shorten the schedule, Mark added a temporary, part-time resource to the project. The technique Mark used is referred to as

A- compressing

B- crashing

C- stacking

D- smooshing

Question 72 of 200

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73. On the new construction project, $5,200 of the project budget is assigned to painting the interior of the building. That work is expected to last two weeks. If one week has already lapsed, what is the planned value for painting the interior of the building?

A- $2,600

B- $5,200

C- We won’t know until the work is complete.

D- It depends on whether the remaining work will be complete within one week.

Question 73 of 200

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74. You are estimating the project duration and understand there may be unforeseen work that is within the scope of the project but unaccounted for. You should include

A- actual activity duration estimates only

B- a contingency reserve

C- a management reserve

D- a wild card buffer

Question 74 of 200

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75. Project planning is complete and project execution is underway. It’s now time to rent the Swift-O-Matic and begin phase I of the project. In which subsidiary management plan should you look for direction to proceed with the rental?

A- human resource management plan

B- procurement management plan

C- time management plan

D- quality management plan

Question 75 of 200

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76. Paul, a project team member, has considerable control over the cost of completing a major project activity. Paul worked diligently to keep cost down and the activity was completed under budget. Paul’s accomplishment should be

A- recognized during the next distribution of rewards

B- expected

C- minimalized so as to not hurt the moral of other project team members

D- ignored

Question 76 of 200

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77. Project planning is complete and the project management plan is approved. For project success, it is critical that the newly manufactured widget support 1,200 lbs. To meet this requirement, prior to the start of manufacturing, the project manager should

A- implement the quality management plan

B- determine whether it’s acceptable with the customer if the widget supports less than 1,200 lbs

C- notify the project sponsor that the widget might not support the full 1,200 lbs

D- none of the above

Question 77 of 200

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78. During the first phase of the project, you identify a potential problem that was previously unidentified. Because the project team must remain in constant contact with a team in an entirely different time zone, you discovered that two part-time human resources are needed instead of one full-time resource. To reduce the impact of a potential problem before it occurs, you should

A- change the number of human resources assigned to the project since it does not affect the project budget

B- change the number of human resources assigned to the project since the change will reduce the impact of a potential problem

C- both A and B

D- submit a change request to the change control board and do nothing without an approved change request

Question 78 of 200

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79. During the first phase of the project, you identify a potential problem that was previously unidentified. Because the project team must remain in constant contact with a team in an entirely different time zone, you discovered that two part-time human resources are needed instead of one full-time resource. The change request should be classified as a

A- preventative action

B- corrective action

C- defect repair

D- variance

Question 79 of 200

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80. The new project manager spends considerable attention managing stakeholder engagement. She understands that a key benefit of stakeholder engagement is that it

A- increases stakeholder support for the project

B- minimizes resistance from the stakeholders

C- increases the chance for achieving project success

D- all of the above

Question 80 of 200

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81. The project manager needs to procure the services of an outside software development team for design of a custom business application. The project manager identified that there seven potential software teams that appear capable of performing the work. Because the work activities will vary depending on the solution, the best tool for obtaining seller responses is a

A- Request for Change (RFC)

B- Request for Quotation (RFQ)

C- Request for Proposal (RFP)

D- Request for Bid (RFB)

Question 81 of 200

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82. The project is planned so that a review occurs at the end of each project phase. The purpose of the review is to gain approval before beginning the next phase, to continue with modification, or to end the entire project. This type of review is referred to as a

A- end review

B- phase gate review

C- go or stop review

D- all of the above

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83. The project manager identified the known project risks and is now in the process of prioritizing them for further analysis. She’s attempting to ascertain their probability of occurrence and impact. The project manager is performing

A- qualitative risk analysis

B- quantitative risk analysis

C- analogous risk analysis

D- OI risk analysis

Question 83 of 200

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84. The project manager needs to procure 100 identical widgets. Several vendors produce the exact widget the project manager needs. The best tool for soliciting price information is a

A- Request for Proposal (RFP)

B- Request for Quotation (RFQ)

C- Request for Change (RFC)

D- Request for Bid (RFB)

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85. On your project, the stakeholders have diverse communication needs. Some need daily status updates throughout the project while others need informed of project performance only at certain times. To accommodate the diverse communication needs, you plan to email status reports to the right stakeholders at the right time. This is referred to as a

A- push method of communication

B- pull method of communication

C- shove method of communication

D- tug method of communication

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86. John is performing qualitative risk analysis. A key benefit of performing qualitative risk analysis is that it enables John to

A- force risks to occur

B- focus on high-priority risks

C- increase his organization’s tolerance for risk

D- decrease his organization’s tolerance for risk

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87. Stan is assigned project manager of the new construction project. He really needs Sarah on the team because she has the necessary engineering experience. Stan begins talking with Sarah’s functional manager in hopes of retaining her service for the project. The work Stan is doing is called

A- acquiring the project team

B- shmoosing

C- risk taking

D- none of the above

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88. The new project manager delivers all project communications by email. One disadvantage with a push method of communication is that the distribution does not ensure the communication

A- was received by the intended audience

B- was understood by the intended audience

C- both A and B are correct

D- neither A nor B are correct

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89. Sarah sends a complex communication to the project stakeholders and finds that most misunderstand the information. As a result, she angered some stakeholders and frustrated others. Besides remedying the situation, Sarah should

A- record the lesson learned

B- not worry about it since she has everything documented in writing

C- discontinue sending emails

D- all of the above

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90. The project manager is addressing the quality assurance team when she discovers one of the team members does not know how to perform a required inspection. The project manager should

A- remove the team member from the project team

B- remove the team member from the quality assurance team

C- ensure the team member receives training

D- change the process for the required inspection

Question 90 of 200

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91. The project manager identifies that one of the risks on the software development project is that the users will reject use of the new application. With this in mind, the project manager engages the users throughout the development project. She ensures they play a role in defining requirements and designing the user interface. With respect to this project risk, the project manager

A- exploited it

B- avoided it

C- mitigated it

D- accepted it

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92. As the project manager, you have full responsibility for managing the project team. Which of the following are you responsible for?

A- monitoring team member performance

B- providing feedback

C- resolving issues

D- all of the above

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93. The project manager has identified six positive risks. Which one is not a strategy for dealing with positive risks?

A- Exploit

B- Transfer

C- Enhance

D- Share

Question 93 of 200

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94. As the project manager, you are calculating the number of potential communication channels. There are 10 stakeholders. How many potential communication channels are there?

A- 45

B- 20

C- 35

D- 55

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95. Alecia noticed that when the new contracting crew was left unsupervised, they accomplished more. They did an exceptional job on the project, remained responsive, and went well beyond the requirements of the contract. Alecia should

A- add note of it in the procurements documentation

B- give the contractor a bonus

C- relieve the contractor from performing some contractual requirements

D- ask the contractor to do more than the contractual amount

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96. During project planning, the project manager made and documented several assumptions. Each one was assigned for validation to a member of the project team. The project team members found that several assumptions were correct. The project manager should

A- update the assumptions log

B- do nothing because the assumptions are correct

C- immediately notify the project sponsor

D- none of the above

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97. Tom is managing the engineering project and he intends to solicit proposals from eight concrete vendors. Before the proposals are due, Tom conducts a meeting where he invites all of the vendors. During the meeting, Tom explains the project and answers questions. Tom is holding a

A- bidder conference

B- contractor alignment meeting

C- RFP

D- RFB

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98. The project manager submitted a change request to the change control board. The board control board can

A- approve the change request

B- approve the request with modifications

C- deny the change request

D- all of the above

Question 98 of 200

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99. On the schedule network diagram, the project manager is adjusting the amount of time between the predecessor and successor activities. She is

A- applying leads and lags

B- adding buffers

C- removing buffers

D- reducing the project budget

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100. Joan analyzed the interests of those on the stakeholder register. She discovered two stakeholders that she’ll classify as negative stakeholders. Which of the following can be true about negative stakeholders?

A- their interests are served by impeding the project

B- they can increase the likelihood of failures and delays

C- they are or perceive themselves to be adversely impacted by the project

D- all of the above are true

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101. The newly assigned project manager learned that Dr. Allen is the project sponsor. Which of the follow is a correct statement regarding a project sponsor?

A- a sponsor can be a person or a group

B- a sponsor is accountable for enabling project success

C- a sponsor leads the project through the initiation phase until it’s formally authorized

D- all of the above are correct statements

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102. Melvin is managing the Launch Success project. On his way to the kickoff meeting, he passes the human resources department and talks to Frank, a human resources manager. Frank is not a member of the project team. Which of the following is a true statement regarding Frank?

A- Frank is a functional manager. Because he is not a member of the project team, he may not provide subject matter expertise or services to the project.

B- Frank is a functional manager and may provide subject matter expertise or services to the project.

C- Because Frank is not a member of the project team, therefore, Frank is a negative stakeholder.

D- Frank is not a member of the project team so it is impossible for Frank to be a project stakeholder.

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103. Martin is managing the relocation project and finds that the project stakeholders are still in discussion regarding some elements of the project. He notes also that some items are actually in dispute. Where should Martin document these items?

A- HR files of each individual

B- issue log

C- requirements traceability matrix

D- WBS

Question 103 of 200

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104. The new project manager didn’t know she would spend time managing the project team. It’s your job to explain that to her. Which of the following are activities she might perform when managing the project team?

A- tracking team member performance

B- providing feedback

C- resolving conflict

D- all of the above

Question 104 of 200

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105. Which of the following is not a true statement about continuous process improvement?

A- it reduces waste

B- it allows processes to operate at increased levels of efficiency and effectiveness

C- it extends the project schedule

D- it’s an iterative means for improving quality

Question 105 of 200

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106. A major construction project is underway and six months from now you will need to procure numerous steel beams. Unfortunately, you just realized you failed to identify that the fluctuating cost of steel can expose the budget to risk. What should you do?

A- buy all the steel now so that the price is certain

B- update the risk register, plan the risk responses, notify the sponsor and seek approval for any changes

C- say and do nothing; perhaps no one will notice

D- none of the above

Question 106 of 200

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107. The new project manager asks you about quality management and control tools. He cites the following as the ones he is familiar with. Which group below contains items that are not quality management and control tools?

A- affinity diagrams and interrelationship digraphs

B- tree diagrams and process decision program charts (PDPC)

C- prioritization matrices and activity network diagrams

D- all of the above are quality management and control tools

Question 107 of 200

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108. The project team is working this weekend to correct an error they made on Monday. Their effort this weekend is an example of

A- nonconformance work

B- second pass work

C- a schedule node

D- a schedule buffer

Question 108 of 200

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109. Paul is managing a project that will add robotics to three assembly lines. The result will reduce the need for human resources. When the project is complete, six people will lose their jobs. With respect to stakeholder management, it would be prudent to view those working on the assembly line as

A- project sponsors

B- functional workers

C- negative stakeholders

D- nonfunctional workers

Question 109 of 200

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110. The project has begun and it is time for the project manager to acquire outside resources. Which subsidiary management plan will define the processes for acquiring the resources?

A- cost management plan

B- procurement management plan

C- human resources management plan

D- communications management plan

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111. The kickoff meeting is over and it is time to begin project work. How frequently should the project manager report project status?

A- daily

B- weekly

C- bi-monthly

D- according to the frequency described in the communication management plan

Question 111 of 200

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112. Hasheed is negotiating the final procurement contract with the supplier of glass. Performance won’t occur for two years, so they enter into a fixed price agreement that accounts for the possibility of price fluctuation. Near the time of performance there will be a final adjustment to the contract price that’s tied to a specific price index. This type of contract is known as a

A- fixed price with economic price adjustment contract (FP-EPA)

B- firm fixed price contract (FFP)

C- time and materials contract (TM)

D- fixed price incentive fee contract (FPIF)

Question 112 of 200

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113. In risk planning, it was decided that if timber prices increased to a specific amount, the timber needed to complete the project would be procured and stored in a warehouse until it was needed. During project execution, prices increased to the specified amount so the timber was procured. While the timber was being placed for storage, it was identified that the warehouse flooded in the past. If the warehouse flood now, much of the timber will warp. This identification is an example of a

A- residual risk

B- secondary risk

C- accepted risk

D- none of the above

Question 113 of 200

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114. The construction project required timber that was procured in advance and placed in storage. While the timber was being placed for storage, it was identified that the warehouse flooded in the past. To cover the risk of loss, the project manager bought an insurance policy. With respect to this potential negative risk, the project manager

A- transferred the risk

B- accepted the risk

C- avoided the risk

D- mitigated the risk

Question 114 of 200

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115. To communicate effectively, the project manager will use appropriate diagrams. Which of the following can be communicated effectively with a tree diagram?

A- work breakdown structure

B- risk breakdown structure

C-organizational breakdown structure

D- all of the above can be communicated effectively with a tree diagram

Question 115 of 200

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116. The project manager was asked to provide examples of quality metrics. Which of the following is an example of a quality metric?

A- a perfect project status report

B- a quality inspection

C- a two-inch widget that weighs three ounces

D- nonconforming work

Question 116 of 200

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117. Mark is documenting required functionality for a new software development project. He’s tracing the movement of a piece of paper from the department where the order was received to the finance department for invoicing, then to the warehouse for parts selection, then to assembly, paint, packing, and shipping. The chart he is most likely to create for capturing this information is a

A- cause and effect diagram

B- flowchart

C- scatter diagram

D- Pareto diagram

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118. The new project manager was explaining a RACI chart and made the following four comments. Which one is not an accurate statement regarding a RACI chart?

A- a RACI chart is one example of a responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B- RACI is an acronym for (responsible, accountable, consult, inform)

C- a RACI chart is a useful tool for ensuring clear divisions of roles and expectations

D- a RACI chart is a hierarchical-type chart

Question 118 of 200

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119. The project recently presented an obstacle that wasn’t accounted for in project planning. To assess the matter, the project manager is working with a team of subject matter experts to identify risks. Unfortunately, one of the experts is domineering and outspoken. Though he is quite experienced, his personality and actions tend to inhibit the feedback of the other experts. To reach a consensus of the experts and reduce the bias of the outspoken expert, the project manager should consider _____________ to gather information about the risk.

A- using the Delphi technique

B- using group brainstorming

C- none of the above

D- both A and B are correct

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120. The project manager will soon work with the project team to perform a SWOT analysis of the project. SWOT is an acronym for

A- skills, work, options, tasks

B- strengths, weaknesses, options, tasks

C- strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats

D- skills, wisdom, options, tasks

Question 120 of 200

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121. A risk that was identified in project planning recently presented itself. The project manager is reviewing the risk management plan to find the appropriate

A- risk response

B- risk avoidance plan

C- person to contract

D- mitigating factor

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122. A recent change request was approved by the change control board. The change involves an increase in the amount of project work. The project manager should

A- reject the new work

B- update the project documents to reflect the change

C- defend the originally approved project management plan

D- stop the project for clarification

Question 122 of 200

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123. The project manager is conducting a structured review of the work performed by a contractor. Specifically, she is reviewing whether or not the contractor is delivering the agreed upon quality within cost and schedule. The project manager is conducting a

A- procurement performance review

B- rewrite of the procurement statement of work

C- peer reviewed evaluation

D- none of the above

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124. The project manager prepares a weekly project status report. To whom should he send the status report?

A- the project sponsor only

B- all project stakeholders

C- only the internal project stakeholders

D- those who were identified as recipients in the approved communications plan

Question 124 of 200

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125. A young organization is beginning to handle numerous projects. Some of their project managers have extensive project management resources while others have little to none. Depending on the project manager, different methodologies are used. The organization could benefit by facilitating the sharing of resources and by using the same methodologies, tools, and techniques. It could accomplish these objectives by establishing a

A- human resources office

B- project management office

C- project organization chart

D- RACI chart

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126. The project manager discovered that Jan, a member of the project team, is schedule to perform two 7-hour activities on Monday. Since no one else on the project team can perform the activities, the project manager sequenced them. Jan will now perform one activity on Monday and the next activity on Tuesday. This resource optimization technique is referred to as

A- resource smoothing

B- resource leveling

C- resource shifting

D- none of the above

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127. The project manager discovered that the project schedule needs compressed. When she reviewed the schedule, she noticed that phase 3 was scheduled to begin after completion of phase 2. Since the start of phase 3 was not dependent upon the completion of phase 2, she decided to overlap the two phases. In other words, she scheduled phase 3 to begin before all activities in phase 2 were complete. This schedule compression technique is referred to as

A- fast tracking

B- crashing

C- busting it

D- hastening

Question 127 of 200

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128. The project manager just discovered that the schedule duration must be shortened without reducing the project scope. For this construction project, landscaping was scheduled to begin after completion of interior painting. To shorten the schedule, the project manager scheduled the landscaping and painting to happen simultaneously. This schedule compression technique is referred to as

A- crashing

B- fast tracking

C- busting it

D- hastening

Question 128 of 200

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129. The project manager is reviewing the activity durations and finds the wiring is documented as “1 week ± 3 days. Assuming a five-day work week, the activity will take

A- at least two days and not more than eight business days

B- at least four days and not more than ten business days

C- ten total days

D- eight business days

Question 129 of 200

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130. You are managing a complex healthcare project and you seek input from the biochemists on the project team. You suspect the most prominent biochemist may stifle the response of others so you send a questionnaire to each individual. Once you received the responses from everyone, you summarized the answers and send them to everyone for feedback. You do this a couple more times until you reach a consensus. What technique are you using to gather the information and reach a consensus?

A- Decision Tree

B- Delphi

C- Monte Carlo

D- Affinity

Question 130 of 200

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131. Each time the customer asks for a new feature to be added, the project manager sizes the work and submits a change request form to the change control board. The project manager is preventing

A- the project from being completed on time

B- rework

C- scope creep

D- customer satisfaction

Question 131 of 200

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132. The new project manager asks you about contingency reserves. With respect to contingency reserves, which of the following is correct?

A- they should be clearly identified in schedule documentation

B- they should be added to each project activity

C- they should be added at the end of each project phase

D- they should be included in each project phase

Question 132 of 200

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133. The project sponsor bursts through your office doors in a panic. He asks you to estimate the shortest possible project duration. What schedule network analysis technique should you use?

A- critical path method

B- total float method

C- backward pass method

D- forward pass method

Question 133 of 200

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134. You calculated the total float for a network path. Now __________ can be determined.

A- free float

B- activity durations

C- activity costs

D- quality requirements

Question 134 of 200

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135. The project manager learned that he will be losing a member of the project team two weeks before the project is scheduled for completion. To account for the limited number of resources, he is placing a buffer on the project schedule path. This scheduling method is known as the

A- critical chain method

B- critical path method

C- schedule control method

D- Pareto method

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136. Marcus is reviewing the project schedule and sees the interior painting can be scheduled to start three weeks prior to completion of flooring. This can be shown as a

A- finish-to-start with a three-week lead

B- start-to-finish with a three-week lead

C- finish-to-start with a three-week lag

D- fishbone diagram

Question 136 of 200

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137. The project manager is calculating the schedule variance (SV). Which is the correct formula for making the calculation?

A- add the planned value to the earned value

B- subtract the planned value from the earned value

C- schedule variance cannot be calculated until the project is complete

D- multiply the planned value by the earned value

Question 137 of 200

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138. A few senior project managers are mentoring a newer project manager. They start a conversation about the importance of earned value management (EVM). Which of the following did they state incorrectly?

A- EVM is a methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress.

B- EVM is a project management technique that requires the formation of an integrated baseline against which performance can be measured for the duration of the project.

C- The principles of EVM should only be applied to manufacturing and construction projects.

D- EVM develops and monitors three key dimensions for each work package and control account.

Question 138 of 200

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139. The project manager notices that if the project continues as planned, the building will lose lateral support which could result in structural damage. For which reason will he submit a change request?

A- preventative action

B- defect repair

C- corrective action

D- none of the above

Question 139 of 200

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140. The new project manager was sharing what he learned about schedule performance index (SPI). He explained that schedule performance index is a measure of schedule efficiency. Next, he made the following additional statements about SPI. Which one is not correct?

A- SPI is expressed as the ratio of earned value to planned value

B- SPI measures how efficiently the project team is using its time

C- An SPI value of less than 1.0 indicates that less work was completed than planned.

D- The equation for calculating SPI is: SPI= EV + PV

Question 140 of 200

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141. The project manager is monitoring the cost variance from the approved baseline. Which of the following is correct regarding cost variance (CV)?

A- CV is expressed as the sum of earned value plus actual cost.

B- A CV of negative 1 means the project is being performed on budget.

C- CV at the end of the project will be the difference between the budget at completion (BAC) and the actual amount spent.

D- none of the above are correct

Question 141 of 200

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142. The project manager is forecasting the expected cost to finish all the remaining project work. Assuming the work is proceeding on plan, which formula should be used to calculate the remaining authorized work?

A- ETC= AC+BAC-EV

B- ETC=EAC-AC

C- ETC= (BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC)

D- ETC= EV/PV

Question 142 of 200

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143. Stan is estimating the cost of an item and there’s some uncertainty involved in pricing it. To compensate for the uncertainty, Stan uses an estimating technique that applies a weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates. The technique he’s using is known as

A- OPM technique

B- OPM technique

C- Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)

D- Technique of Weighted Averages (TWA)

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144. Planning is complete and the project work is underway. Which of the following is correct about monitoring and controlling process group?

A- it occurs after the initiating process group

B- it involves controlling changes and recommending action in anticipation of possible problems

C- it involves monitoring the ongoing project activities

D- all of the above

Question 144 of 200

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145. The project manager is analyzing the project performance from January to June to determine whether the project is improving or deteriorating. He is performing

A- trend analysis

B- deterioration inspection

C- a baselining technique

C- none of the above

Question 145 of 200

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146. The sponsor was told the schedule variance is 0. This means

A- the project is on schedule

B- the project is ahead of schedule

C- the project is behind schedule

D- nothing

Question 146 of 200

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147. The senior project manager is leaving the organization in two weeks. In advance of his departure, he meets with the incoming project manager to share information about the project and to facilitate the hand off. At one point, they review the schedule baseline. Which of the following statements about the schedule baseline is correct?

A- It can only be changed through formal change control procedures.

B- The schedule baseline can be used as basis for comparison to actual results.

C- The schedule baseline is the approved version of the schedule model.

D- All of the above are correct statements regarding the schedule baseline.

Question 147 of 200

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148. The project manager calculated the schedule performance index and it is 1. This means the project is

A- ahead of schedule

B- on schedule

C- behind schedule

D- none of the above

Question 148 of 200

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149. The new project manager was sharing what he learned about cost performance index (CPI). He explained that cost performance index is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources. Next, he made the following additional statements about CPI. Which one is not correct?

A- CPI is expressed as the sum of earned value to actual cost. CPI= EV+AC

B- CPI is considered the most critical EVM metric and measures the cost efficiency of the work completed.

C- a CPI value of less than 1.0 indicates a cost overrun for work completed.

D- the CPI indices are useful for determining project status. They provide a basis for estimating project cost and schedule outcome.

Question 149 of 200

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150. In risk planning, it was decided that if timber prices fell to a specified amount, the timber needed to complete the project would be procured and stored in a warehouse until it was needed. As luck would have it, the prices did fall. With respect to this positive risk, the risk strategy is to

A- accept it

B- enhance it

C- share it

D- exploit it

Question 150 of 200

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151. The project manager is monitoring variances from the approved schedule baseline. Which of the following is incorrect regarding schedule variance (SV)?

A- SV is a measure of schedule performance expressed as the sum of the earned value and the planned value. SV=EV+PV

B- SV is the amount by which the project is ahead or behind the planned delivery date, at any given time.

C- SV is equal to the earned value minus the planned value.

D- When the project is complete, the EVM schedule variance will zero.

Question 151 of 200

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152. Which of the following might be found in a schedule management plan?

A- The approved cost baseline.

B- A list of project stakeholders who are concerned about the project schedule.

C- Risks that may affect the project schedule.

D- Rules for establishing percent complete.

Question 152 of 200

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153. The new project manager asks you about managing change. She asks, “After the project management plan is approved, which changes should I permit?” Which of the following is a correct response regarding integrated change control?

A- All changes requested by the project sponsor should be incorporated into a revised baseline.

B- Any change that does not increase cost should be incorporated into a revised baseline.

C- Only approved changes should be incorporated into a revised baseline.

D- None of the above are correct.

Question 153 of 200

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154. Steven is asked to categorize the change requests as those including corrective action, preventative action or defect repair. Which of the following changes is an example of preventative action?

A- The printer stops working mid-project so you submit a change request to replace it.

B- The printer stops working mid-project so you submit a change request to get it fixed.

C- At the beginning of the project, you submit a change request to purchase a new printer because the old printer will be incompatible when the new operating system rolls out.

D- At the end of the project, you throw the broken printer away. No change request is needed because the project is over.

Question 154 of 200

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155. Mary told Mark that critical activities have 0 float. This statement is

A- correct

B- incorrect

C- incorrect if the critical activities are on the critical path

D- correct if the critical activities are greater than 1 day

Question 155 of 200

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156. The project sponsor asked for the schedule performance index (SPI)and project manager told her that the SPI is 2.0. Which of the following is a correct inference?

A- the project is ahead of schedule

B- the project is on schedule

C- the project is behind schedule

D- SPI calculates the cost spent in relationship to the schedule

Question 156 of 200

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157. The project manager discovered that each time the system attempted X, performance dropped significantly. The project team didn’t know what caused the problem; therefore, they decided to perform a root-cause analysis. A root-cause analysis is

A- a correlation chart that uses a regression line to explain what triggers the problem

B- type of interviewing technique used to identify a problem by asking questions of subject matter experts

C- an analytical technique used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative action.

D- a polling technique used for building consensus regarding a problem.

Question 157 of 200

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158. Even though the project activities are taking longer to complete than estimated, the project is not behind schedule. One possible reason is because

A- the cost estimates were accurate

B- the quality requirements have been met

C- the schedule includes contingency reserves

D- no risks were present

Question 158 of 200

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159. A change request was submitted and approved by the change control board. The request adds two additional work activities to the project. What project documents, if any, might need updated?

A- project schedule

B- risk register

C- cost baseline

D- all of the above

Question 159 of 200

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160. The project manager is leading the customer in a software application walk-through. She’s illustrating that each of the required features are in place and that the required functionality exists and operates properly. The customer tests the application and confirms that each requirement is met. As to this project phase, the walk-through and customer testing produced

A- verified deliverables

B- change requests

C- formalized acceptance

D- scope creep

Question 160 of 200

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161. A project stakeholder recommends implementing a corrective action that requires a small change to the project management plan. What should happen before the corrective action is implemented?

A- Additional resources should be received from the stakeholder.

B- A change request should be initiated.

C- Nothing should happen. Once the project management plan is approved, changes should not be implemented until the project is complete.

D- The project manager should check the contingency reserves.

Question 161 of 200

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162. The project is now two weeks behind schedule. What is the most likely schedule variance?

A- -1.0

B- 0

C- 1.0

D- 2.0

Question 162 of 200

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163. A project stakeholder recommends implementing a corrective action that requires a small change to the project management plan. The change request is approved, the project management plan is updated and the change is implemented. What should happen next?

A- The cause of the variance, the corrective action and the reasoning behind both should be documented so they become part of the lessons learned database.

B- The project team should remind the project manager to maintain the original project scope.

C- The project stakeholder should determine whether any additional changes are required.

D- The procurements office should be notified immediately.

Question 163 of 200

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164. Acme Inc. is under contract with the buying organization to deliver 10 widgets a month. The buyer’s project team uses the widgets in their performance of project work. The project manager realizes now that 10 widgets a month is insufficient and that 12 widgets would better serve the needs of the project.

After the change request is approved and the project management plan is updated, the project manager contacts Acme Inc. Acme and the performing organization have a long history of working well together. Without hesitation, Acme agrees to deliver 12 widgets beginning with the next delivery. What should the project manager do next?

A- Pay Acme a lump sum amount to cover all the additional widgets that the project will require.

B- Ignore inspection of the additional two new widgets since they are not a part of the original contract.

C- Cause the procurement contract to be updated and signed by Acme and the buying organization.

D- Inspect the additional two widgets in the same manner used to inspect the first 10.

Question 164 of 200

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165. Acme is now under contract to provide 12 widgets a month to the buying organization for a period of one year. After the sixth month, the buyer’s project manager realizes that widgets are no longer needed. The project manager contacts Acme and tells them to discontinue shipment. What is the likely result?

A- The project manager is rewarded for saving money.

B- Acme contacts the buying organization to discuss continued payment. They remind the buying organization that Acme is under contract and has a right to perform.

C- The project sponsor supports the project manager’s decision.

D- The amount of project risk is reduced.

Question 165 of 200

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166. The project manager has received 12 widgets from Acme for a period of three months. At this time, the project manager is reviewing Acme’s progress in delivering the correct amount of widgets, on time, and within cost. She’s also evaluating whether the widgets consistently met the agreed upon quality requirements. The project manager is conducting a

A- risk audit

B- financial audit

C- procurements report

D- procurement performance review

Question 166 of 200

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167. The project manager is evaluating the work performance of the vendor. Which of the following is not a benefit of gathering work performance information?

A- It supports improved communications with vendors.

B- It supports more competitive pricing.

C- It supports risk management.

D- It assists in the event there is a dispute with the vendor.

Question 167 of 200

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168. The project began about two weeks ago. Everyone in the organization knows the new software may likely change the workflow in some departments. Right now, business analysts are going to each department to gather requirements.

A manager in the Human Resources (HR) department designed the legacy workflow for HR. He just returned from vacation and is raising some problems. He says the new software will increase the amount of work required of him and it won’t provide the functionality he needs. Further, he claims that any changes made to the current workflow will only cause problems. What’s the best way to deal with this negative stakeholder?

A- Ignore him and work around him.

B- Engage him in designing the new workflow.

C- Report him to his functional manager.

D- Lodge a complaint against him.

Question 168 of 200

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169. The project manager is monitoring the project schedule. She notes that the work activity that is now two days behind schedule is an activity that’s on the critical path. Which statement below is correct regarding variance on the critical path?

A- It will have a direct impact on the project end date.

B- It will not have a direct impact the project end date.

C- It will have a direct impact on quality.

D- It will not have a direct impact on procurement contracts.

Question 169 of 200

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170. The project manager is monitoring the project schedule. Which is a correct statement regarding buffers?

A- The difference between the buffer needed and buffer remaining can determine whether corrective action is appropriate.

B- Comparing the amount of buffer remaining to the amount of buffer needed to protect the delivery date can help determine schedule status.

C- Both A and B are correct

D- Neither A nor B are correct

Question 170 of 200

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171. The project is underway and you’re measuring the schedule performance. Which of the following is true about schedule variance (SV) and schedule performance index (SPI)?

A- Both SV and SPI are used to assess early start (ES) dates of project activities.

B- Both SV and SPI are predictors of late start (LS) dates.

C- Both SV and SPI are used to assess the magnitude of variation to the schedule baseline.

D- none of the above

Question 171 of 200

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172. You’ve discovered that a couple project activities are behind schedule. To bring them back into alignment with the plan, you decide to run previously sequenced activities in parallel. This schedule compression technique is referred to as

A- crashing

B- fast tracking

C- multitasking

D- none of the above

Question 172 of 200

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173. One of the project stakeholders handed you a written change request. As the project manager, you should

A- ensure the change is swiftly implemented

B- submit it to the change control board

C- place it aside until you’re ready to implement it

D- tell the stakeholder that the project management plan is approved and no changes will be implemented

Question 173 of 200

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174. The project is underway and you are comparing the cost baseline with the actual results. You’re attempting to determine if ___________________ is/are necessary.

A- a change

B- a corrective action

C- a preventative action

D- any of the above

Question 174 of 200

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175. You’re managing restoration of an historically significant building. The budget at completion is $400,000 and 25% of the project work is complete. What is the earned value (EV)?

A- There is not enough information to calculate the earned value.

B- $100,000

C- $300,000

D- $400,000

Question 175 of 200

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176. The project is about 95% complete and the project sponsor asks you to forecast the variance at completion (VAC). You tell the sponsor that the VAC is 0. From this, the sponsor can infer the project

A- will likely finish on budget

B- will likely finish under budget

C- will likely finish over budget

D- will likely finish on schedule

Question 176 of 200

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177. The vendor is under a firm-fixed price contract with the buying organization. Per contract, the vendor must deliver 50 steel widgets, the first of each month, for a period of 12 months. The vendor negotiated a high contract price because the cost of steel wasn’t just high, it was climbing. Right after contract execution, the price of steel fell sharply. In fact, the price of steel fell 50%. In this situation, the project manager should

A- Renegotiate the contract since the seller is receiving a windfall.

B- End the contract and enter into one with another vendor.

C- Do nothing. The buying organization and the vendor are in a legally enforceable contract that dictates a set price.

D- Pay the seller 50% less than the invoiced amount.

Question 177 of 200

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178. Two project managers were discussing earned value management (EVM). They both agreed that EVM develops and monitors three key dimensions for each work package and control account, but they couldn’t agree on which three it was. Which set of three key dimensions is correct?

A- earned value, planned value, and shared value

B- planned value, earned value and actual cost

C- planned value, budget at completion and actual cost

D- planned value, planned cost and earned value

Question 178 of 200

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179. Finally, the project is complete and all planned values have been earned. What is the EVM schedule variance?

A- 0

B- -1

C- 1

D- There is not enough information provided to calculate the schedule variance.

Question 179 of 200

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180. The project manager is monitoring cost. The earned value (EV) is $25,000 and the actual cost (AC) is $27,500. What is the cost variance?

A- $2,500

B- $52,500

C- -$2,500

D- 1.23

Question 180 of 200

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181. The project manager reported the cost variance at -$500. What can be inferred from this information?

A- The actual cost is $500 more than the earned value.

B- The actual cost is $500 less than the earned value.

C- The earned value is unknown.

D- Both A and C are correct

Question 181 of 200

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182. The project manager reviewed the project schedule for variance. She reports the schedule variance as 0. What does this mean?

A- The earned value and the planned value are the same.

B- She reported the schedule variance inaccurately.

C- The earned value is unknown.

D- Both A and C are correct

Question 182 of 200

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183. The project sponsor want to know who efficiently the project team is using its time. The project manager could communicate the information by calculating and reporting the

A- schedule performance index

B- float

C- critical path

D- critical chain

Question 183 of 200

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184. The project manager must calculate and report the schedule performance index (SPI). Which formula should the project manager use?

A- SPI= EV/PV

B- SPI= PV/EV

C- SPI= EV x PV

D- SPI= EV – PV

Question 184 of 200

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185. The project manager is calculating the estimate at completion (EAC) forecast for estimate to complete (ETC) work performed at the budgeted rate. To determine the EAC, he must add the actual cost (AC) to

A- the budget at completion (BAC) time the cost performance index (CPI)

B- the earned value (EV)

C- the cost performance index (CPI) times the schedule performance index (SPI)

D- the difference between the budget at completion (BAC) minus the earned value (EV)

Question 185 of 200

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186. Stephen is managing a project that uses earned value management (EVM). It’s his responsibility to calculate the variance at completion (VAC). To do so, he should subtract the estimate at completion (EAC) from the

A- actual cost (AC)

B- budget at completion (BAC)

C- schedule performance index (SPI)

D- cost performance index (CPI

Question 186 of 200

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187. The project is now complete. Which of the following may occur?

A- obtain customer or sponsor acceptance

B- document lessons learned

C- close out all procurement activities

D- all of the above

Question 187 of 200

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188. As the project manager is your organization, it’s your responsibility to close procurements at the end of the project. Which of the following might be performed?

A- finalize all open claims

B- release all contract resources

C- final evaluation performance

D- all of the above

Question 188 of 200

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189. At the end of the project, the project manager collected, indexed, and filed all the procurement documents. She captured contracts, reviews for quality, contract change documents, payment records, and inspection results. Later, this information can be used for

A- lessons learned information

B- evaluating the contractors for future work

C- both A and B

D- neither A nor B

Question 189 of 200

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190. The project manager is performing a procurement audit. The objective of a procurement audit is to

A- review the procurement process and identify successes and failures that should be accounted for in the preparation or administration of other procurement contracts or on other projects within the performing organization.

B- select the most qualified contractors for the project so that the project finishes as quickly as possible.

C- both A and B are correct

D- neither N nor B are correct

Question 190 of 200

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191. The software development project team was finished with development and configuration of a new business application for the Human Resources department. An important part of closing out the project involves

A- transferring ownership of the application to the Human Resources department.

B- performing continuous application upgrades

C- documenting, indexing and filing the final lessons learned

D- both A and C are correct

Question 191 of 200

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192. The project is complete and the project manager would like to obtain feedback from the 250 project stakeholders. What’s the most efficient way to obtain the feedback from this many people?

A- individual interviews

B- issue a survey

C- telephone calls

D- brainstorming sessions

Question 192 of 200

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193. A challenging project is coming to a close. The project team delivered stellar performance. Their work delivered the project on schedule and under budget. As the project manager, what would be the appropriate response?

A- throw a party to celebrate the victory

B- personally thank each member of the project team

C- reward members of the project team

D- all of the above are appropriate responses

Question 193 of 200

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194. The second project phase is coming to a closure. When is the appropriate time to document lessons learned?

A- at the end of each project

B- at the end of each phase

C- at the end of each deliverable

D- it’s always the appropriate time to capture lessons learned

Question 194 of 200

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195. Before the start of the project, numerous risks were identified and the uncertainty was high. At what time is risk and uncertainty the lowest?

A- right after the project starts

B- after the end of the first project phase

C- towards the end of the project

D- Risk and uncertainty remain constant throughout the project life cycle.

Question 195 of 200

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196. For 16 long months, you’ve managed expectations of the most negative stakeholder you’ve ever encountered. Finally, the project is nearing completion. When can a stakeholder have a negative effect on the project?

A- right after the project starts

B- after the end of the first project phase

C- towards the end of the project

D- Stakeholders can have a negative effect on a project at any time during the project life cycle.

Question 196 of 200

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197. As the project manager on a high-profile project, you’ve done an excellent job managing change. At what time was the cost of change the lowest?

A- at the beginning of the project

B- during the middle of the project

C- at the end of the project

D- the cost of change remains constant throughout the life of a project

Question 197 of 200

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198. The project you’re assigned to is segmented into four phases. Which of the following is accurate regarding the closure of a project phase?

A- the closure of a phase ends with some form of transfer or hand-off of the work product produced as the phase deliverable

B- the phase end is a natural point to reassess the activities underway and to change or terminate the project if necessary

C- often, the closure of a phase requires some form of approval

D- All of the above are accurate statements regarding the closure of a project phase.

Question 198 of 200

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199. What happens to organizational resources at the formal ending of a project?

A- the organizational resources are released to pursue new endeavors

B- The organizational resources are evaluated to measure increases in their value

C- the organizational resources are discarded

D- none of the above

Question 199 of 200

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200. Thanks to technology, Vic was able to manage the project from a remote location. In fact, the entire project team performed from remote locations. The project was successful and it’s coming to a close. Because the project work and management was provided from remote locations, what work in the closing process must be performed differently?

A- resources do not need released at the end of the project

B- there is no need to close procurements

C- the project does not need formal acceptance to close

D- the closing process remains the same regardless of where the project was managed and performed

Question 200 of 200

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PMP Practice Exam 2016

PMP Practice Exam 2016

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