PMP Practice Exam 1

Instructions

This 50-question PMP practice exam is based exclusively on PMBOK Guide, 5th Edition. It was prepared by a PMP certified project manager at MyPM. If you are timing yourself, allow one hour.
Every question must be answered.
More than one answer may be correct. Select the best answer for every question.
To mark a question for review, place a check mark in the box labelled “Mark for Review.” This box appears at the top right of every question. It will provide you with a visual reminder to review your answer before submitting the test for review.
When you have completed the exam, select the button titled “Show Results.” It’s at the bottom of the page. Once selected, your exam will be automatically graded and your score will be displayed.
This exam will present all of your answers. Correct answers will be displayed with a green check and incorrect answers will be displayed with a red X.

Exam Topics

The topics of this exam include an overview of project management and project scope management. For PMP practice questions that cover more topics, see our other PMP practice exams.

Begin Exam 1

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1. What is a stakeholder?

A- The person responsible for preparing the project budget.

B- An organization that’s hired to perform risk analysis.

C- A person or organization that is not actively involved in the project, or whose interests will not be affected by execution or completion of the project.

D- A person or organization that is actively involved in the project, or whose interests may be positively or negatively affected by execution or completion of the project.

Question 1 of 50

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2. Which answer includes the five project management process groups?

A- investigating process group, planning process group, deciding process group, monitoring and controlling process group, and the closing process group

B- initiating process group, performing process group, executing process group, monitoring and controlling process group, and the closing process group

C- initiating process group, planning process group, executing process group, monitoring and controlling process group, and the closing process group

D- investigating process group, planning process group, estimating process group, monitoring and controlling process group, and the closing process group

Question 2 of 50

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3. A project charter

A- lists the names and roles of all project team members.

B- is most often reviewed when documenting lessons learned.

C- formally authorizes the existence of a project.

D- is used to document change requests.

Question 3 of 50

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4. WBS is an acronym for

A- work breakdown structure.

B- waste breakdowns structure.

C- waste breakdown sequence.

D- work baseline sequence.

Question 4 of 50

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5. Which subsidiary plan is not a part of the project management plan?

A- human resource management plan

B- communications management plan

C- risk management plan

D- baseline management plan

Question 5 of 50

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6. When does a project reach its end?

A- When the project objectives have been achieved.

B- When the project is terminated because its objectives will not or cannot be met.

C- When the need for the project no longer exists.

D- For any of the reasons above.

Question 6 of 50

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7. Which of the following is not a project constraint?

A- schedule

B- stakeholder

C- budget

D- quality

Question 7 of 50

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8. Organizational project management is a strategy execution framework that utilizes which of the following?

A- project management

B- program management

C- portfolio management

D- all of the above

Question 8 of 50

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9. Which answer best describes the PMBOK® Guide?

A- It contains the standard for managing most projects most of the time across many types of industries.

B- It contains step-by-step instructions for managing all projects.

C- It contains the standard for how project managers must conduct themselves.

D- It ensures project success.

Question 9 of 50

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10. In the classic functional organization, the project manager’s authority is

A- high.

B- little or none.

C- moderate to high.

D- moderate.

Question 10 of 50

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11. Which of the following best describe organizational process assets?

A- buildings and equipment owned by the performing organization

B- reasons that most projects encounter risk

C- items that must be estimated before the schedule is developed

D- plans, processes, policies, procedures, and knowledge bases specific to and used by the performing organization

Question 11 of 50

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12. Project management offices (PMO) often serve which function?

A- They provide human resource support functions.

B- They provide project management certification exams.

C- They provide accounting and budgetary support functions.

D- They provide project management support functions.

Question 12 of 50

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13. A directive PMO

A- takes control of the projects by directly managing them. Their degree of control is high.

B- directs contract project managers to manage the projects. Their degree of control is low.

C- receives directives from external stakeholders and shares in the management of the projects. Their degree of control is low.

D- none of the above.

Question 13 of 50

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14. Which answer includes examples of operational stakeholders?

A- project managers and program managers

B- sales persons and help desk staff

C- both of the above

D- neither of the above

Question 14 of 50

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15. Rather than relying on a functional approach, a particular organization conducts the majority of their work as projects. This organization is referred to as a

A- Organization of Project Performance (OPP).

B- Non-Functional Organization (NFO).

C- Project-Based Organization (PBO).

D- none of the above

Question 15 of 50

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16. The role of the project manager includes

A- leading the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives.

B- leading the functional managers towards reaching the strategic objectives.

C- leading the human resources department to meet the labor ratio requirements.

D- all of the above

Question 16 of 50

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17. Which of the following is an organizational influence that’s likely to affect a project?

A- an organizations risk tolerance.

B- an organizations motivation and reward systems.

C- an organizations values and beliefs.

D- all of the above

Question 17 of 50

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18. If the organizational structure is projectized, who will most-likely manage the project budget?

A- the project manager

B- the accounting department

C- a functional manager

D- the project sponsor

Question 18 of 50

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19. When the organizational structure is projectized, the project manager’s authority is

A- little or none

B- low

C- low to moderate

D- high to almost total

Question 19 of 50

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20. Which of the following is not an enterprise environmental factor?

A- project work activities

B- organizational culture

C- government or industry standards

D- political climate

Question 20 of 50

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21. Select the correct statement.

A- Stakeholder identification should be completed prior to constructing the project charter.

B- Stakeholder identification should be performed at the beginning of each project phase.

C- Where a project begins pursuant to a contract, stakeholder identification is not necessary.

D- Stakeholder identification is a continuous process that should be performed throughout the entire project life cycle.

Question 21 of 50

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22. A project to expand a manufacturing park will force Joe’s Hamburger Shack to relocate. Joe does not wish to relocate. His interests are best served if the project never begins. Joe is a

A- functional stakeholder.

B- project sponsor.

C- negative stakeholder.

D- positive stakeholder.

Question 22 of 50

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23. A project life cycle

A- provides the basic framework for managing the project.

B- is the series of project phases that a project passes through from its initiation to its closure.

C- can be documented with a methodology.

D- all of the above

Question 23 of 50

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24. The initiating process group includes

A- those processes required to tract, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes.

B- those processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications.

C- those processes performed to finalize all activities across all process groups to formally close the project or phase.

D- those processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase.

Question 24 of 50

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25. Which of the following is not an input to developing the project charter?

A- project statement of work

B- business case

C- risk management plan

D- enterprise environmental factors

Question 25 of 50

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26. The business case

A- describes the necessary information to determine whether or not the project is worth the investment.

B- typically contains the business need and a cost-benefit analysis.

C- both A and B

D- neither A nor B

Question 26 of 50

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27. Which subsidiary plans are part of the project management plan?

A- work management plan, cost management plan, quality management plan, communication management plan

B- scope management plan, cost management plan, quality management plan, communication management plan

C- scope management plan, cost management plan, quality management plan, political management plan

D- scope management plan, cost management plan, expectations management plan, communication management plan

Question 27 of 50

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28. An approved change request

A- is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process.

B- may be a corrective action, a preventative action, or a defect repair.

C- can modify the project budget and schedule.

D- all of the above

Question 28 of 50

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29. When the project manager reviews all change requests, submits each one for approval and then manages the changes to the deliverables and the project management plan, she is performing

A- change management.

B- integrated change control.

C- neither A nor B

D- both A and B

Question 29 of 50

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30. Regarding change control, which of the following is correct?

A- Only approved changes are incorporated into a revised baseline.

B- Change requests are initiated by the project sponsor only.

C- Only the project manager can reject a change request.

D- Only the project sponsor can reject a change request.

Question 30 of 50

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31. The Change Control Board (CCB) is responsible for

A- documenting all changes requests.

B- procuring the resources for all change requests.

C- naming the project manager and establishing the project budget.

D- reviewing change requests and approving, rejecting or otherwise disposing of them.

Question 31 of 50

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32. The scope baseline for the project is

A- set forth in the contract.

B- the initial project scope statement.

C- the approved version of the project scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS) and the WBS dictionary.

D- found in the lessons learned documentation.

Question 32 of 50

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33. To create the Work Breakdown Structure, a project manager

A- lumps together the related project deliverables into larger project phases.

B- subdivides project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components.

C- subdivides the project budget to fit each project phase.

D- lumps together the related work activities to better manage them.

Question 33 of 50

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34. A baseline is

A- the time in calendar units between the start and finish of a schedule activity.

B- compared to desired project performance to evaluate project success.

C- a component of work performed during the course of the project.

D- compared to actual performance to determine if performance is within acceptable variance thresholds.

Question 34 of 50

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35. The Scope Management Plan

A. defines when the statement of work will be complete.

B. documents how long it takes to complete each of the work activities.

C. documents how the project scope will be analyzed for scheduling.

D. documents how the project scope will be defined, validated, and controlled.

Question 35 of 50

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36. A requirements traceability matrix

A- links requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them.

B- links requirements to the project sponsor and traces them to the appropriate member of the project team.

C- is found in the project charter.

D- is a part of the cost management plan.

Question 36 of 50

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37. Which of the following is not a tool or technique for collecting requirements?

A- conducting interviews

B- facilitating focus groups

C- brainstorming

D- preparing a Gantt chart

Question 37 of 50

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38. Joint application design/development (JAD) sessions

A- refer to a type of facilitated workshop used in the software development industry.

B- bring business subject matter experts and the development team together to improve the software development process.

C- both A and B

D- neither A nor B

Question 38 of 50

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39. A user story is

A- a short, textual description of required functionality.

B- often developed during a requirements workshop.

C- often used with agile methods.

D- all of the above

Question 39 of 50

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40. Storyboarding

A- involves comparing actual practices to those of comparable industries to identify best practices.

B- provides a basis for measuring performance.

C- is a prototyping technique that illustrates the sequence of or navigation through a series of images or illustrations.

D- analyzes existing documents to elicit requirements.

Question 40 of 50

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41. Before being baselined, requirements should be

A- approved by the project team.

B- rejected by the Change Control Board.

C- unambiguous (measurable and testable), traceable, complete, consistent, and acceptable to key stakeholders.

D- none of the above

Question 41 of 50

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42. Benchmarking involves

A- comparing different types of project requirements to determine which ones must be included in the project scope.

B- calculating the critical path to determine the shortest possible duration for completing a project.

C- reviewing budget forecasts and the actual amounts spent, including all costs of labor, to calculate the total cost performance.

D- comparing actual or planned practices, such as processes and operation, to those of comparable organizations to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement, and provide a basis for measuring performance.

Question 42 of 50

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43. Alternatives generation is a technique that can be used to help define project scope. It involves developing as many potential options as possible in order to identify different approaches to execute the work of the project. Which of the following is a general management technique that can be used to generate alternatives?

A- forming

B- storming

C- brainstorming

D- norming

Question 43 of 50

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44. A ground excavation project is expected to last for a period of four months. All project work must cease on rainy days. When preparing the project scope, the rain should be cited as

A- a constraint.

B- an assumption.

C- an exclusion.

D- a deliverable.

Question 44 of 50

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45. A ground excavation project is expected to last for a period of four months. All project work must cease on rainy days. Based on prior weather patterns, the project manager suspects it will rain a total of twelve days. This means, there may be twelve days where work cannot be performed. When preparing the project scope, the prediction of twelve days of rain should be cited as

A- a constraint.

B- an assumption.

C- an exclusion.

D- a deliverable.

Question 45 of 50

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46. ________ is the work defined at the lowest level of the WBS for which cost and duration can be estimated and managed.

A- The HBC

B- The project life cycle

C- The project phase

D- The work package

Question 46 of 50

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47. It’s not always possible to decompose a deliverable that will be accomplished far into the future. Sometimes, a work item may remain to be agreed upon or all information may not be known. Therefore, items in the very near future are planned in detail and work far into the future is planned at a high level of the WBS. When more information is known, that work becomes planned at greater detail. This technique is referred to as

A- excessive decomposition.

B- the 100 percent rule.

C- rolling wave planning.

D- none of the above

Question 47 of 50

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48. The WBS is finalized by assigning each work package to

A- a stakeholder.

B- the scope statement.

C- a control account.

D- the estimated budget.

Question 48 of 50

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49. By controlling the project scope, the project manager ensures all requested changes and recommendations for corrective or preventative actions are processed through the

A- assignment process.

B- integrated change control process.

C- internal scope control process.

D- requesting organization.

Question 49 of 50

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50. Which of the following is the definition of a project?

A- A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

B- An ongoing activity that is a part of daily operations.

C- neither A nor B

D- both A and B

Question 50 of 50

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Instructions

Exam Topics

Begin Exam 1

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